OSSTET Previous Year Question Papers 2016 PDF Download with Answer Key

If you are preparing for the Odisha Secondary School Teacher Eligibility Test (OSSTET), then practicing previous year question papers is one of the smartest strategies to crack the exam. In this post, you can download the OSSTET 2016 question paper PDF along with the answer key completely free. These papers will help you understand the exam pattern, difficulty level, and important topics asked in previous years.

What is OSSTET Exam?

OSSTET (Odisha Secondary School Teacher Eligibility Test) is conducted to determine the eligibility of candidates for teaching positions in secondary schools in Odisha. The exam is conducted by the Board of Secondary Education (BSE), Odisha. It consists of multiple-choice questions and tests candidates on subject knowledge, teaching aptitude, and general awareness.

OSSTET 2016 Question Paper PDF Download

Below you can download OSSTET 2016 question paper PDF with answer key. These papers are very useful for understanding real exam questions and improving your preparation level.

⬇ Download OSSTET 2016 Question Paper PDF

Why Should You Practice OSSTET Previous Year Papers?

Practicing OSSTET previous year question papers is extremely beneficial for candidates who want to score high marks. These papers give you a clear understanding of the exam pattern, types of questions, and marking scheme. You can identify important topics that are frequently asked and focus more on them during your preparation.

Another major advantage of solving previous year papers is time management. When you practice regularly, you learn how to complete the exam within the given time. It also helps reduce exam fear and increases your confidence level.

Benefits of Solving OSSTET Question Papers

• Understand the real exam pattern
• Identify important topics and questions
• Improve speed and accuracy
• Boost confidence before exam
• Analyze weak areas and improve performance

OSSTET 2016 Exam Pattern

The OSSTET exam consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Each question carries one mark, and there is no negative marking. The exam is divided into two papers: Paper 1 and Paper 2, depending on the subject chosen by the candidate.

The total duration of the exam is usually 2.5 hours. Questions are asked from subject-specific topics along with pedagogy and teaching-related concepts. Candidates must qualify the exam to become eligible for teaching positions.

How to Use OSSTET Previous Year Papers Effectively?

To get the best results, you should follow a proper strategy while solving OSSTET previous year papers. First, try to solve the paper in a timed environment just like the real exam. This will help you improve your speed and accuracy.

After completing the paper, check your answers using the answer key and analyze your mistakes. Focus on weak topics and revise them regularly. Repeat this process to continuously improve your performance.

Download OSSTET Previous Year Papers (Year-wise)

Year	Paper	Question Paper	Answer Key
2016	Paper 1	Download	Download
2018	Paper 1	Download	Download
2022	Paper 1	Download	Download

Preparation Tips for OSSTET Exam

Start your preparation by understanding the syllabus and exam pattern. Make a proper study plan and allocate time for each subject. Practice previous year question papers regularly and take mock tests to evaluate your performance.

Revision is very important. Make short notes for quick revision before the exam. Focus more on important topics and avoid wasting time on less relevant areas.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Where can I download OSSTET 2016 question paper PDF?

You can download the OSSTET 2016 question paper PDF from the link provided above in this post.

2. Are OSSTET previous year papers useful?

Yes, OSSTET previous year papers are extremely useful for understanding exam pattern, improving speed, and boosting confidence.

3. Is there negative marking in OSSTET?

No, there is no negative marking in the OSSTET exam.

4. How many papers are there in OSSTET?

There are mainly two papers: Paper 1 and Paper 2, depending on the subject.

Conclusion

OSSTET previous year question papers are a powerful resource for exam preparation. By regularly practicing these papers, you can improve your accuracy, speed, and overall performance. Download the OSSTET 2016 question paper PDF and start your preparation today to achieve success in the exam.

 [ English ]

1. The stranger asked me _____ .

  

(A) where is the post office     (B) where is the post office is

(C) where was the post office  (D) where the post office was

2. Which of the following grammatically acceptable ?

(A) Rekha says i'm tired      (B) Rekha says, "I'm tired."

(C) Rekha says, I'm tired      (D) Rekha says "i'm tired."

3. The criminal was granted ______ by the appex court.

(A) bell                                                 (B) bale

(C) bail                                               (D) beil

4. Odisha is rich _____ minerals.

                    (A) in      (B) with      (C) at      (D) for

5. Which is the correct pronunciation of 'is' :

(A) | iz |          (B) | eez |              (C) | ij |           (D) | ez |

6. Which letter in the word 'muscle' is silent in pronunciation ?

(A) l            (B) s          (C) c          (D) m

7. The boy resembles his father.

    The word underlined can be replaced by _______ .

(A) takes to        (B) takes in           (C) takes after          (D) takes off

8. If he listened more carefully, he _______ so many mistakes.

(A) couldn't have made         (B) wouldn't make         (C) won't have made        (D) can't make

9. He wants to know how many people _______ to dinner.

(A) are coming         (B) would have come       (C) were coming        (D)       had come

 Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Environmental scientists are worried about the green house effect, which which has been noticed throughout the world. The green house is actually, a gradual warning up of the earth, which can disturb its natural environment. The main cause of this effect is the last scale of industrialization, in almost all the countries of the world. the gases released by the factories and power-driven vehicles, have made the earth protective cover weak. Large scale felling of trees, has made the problem more acute.

1.What has made the Earth's protective cover weak ?

(A) Deforestation

(B) Wars

(C) Cigarette smoking 

(D) Gases discharged by vehicles and factories

2. Deforestation is resulted in 

(A) making less land available for building

(B) supplying plenty of wood

(C) creating more problems in preserving the environment

(D) increasing rain fall

3. The green house effect could 

(A) increase productivity on earth 

(B) be useful to animal life

(C) be beneficial to rich nation

(D) upset the balance in nature

4. Who, has described in the passage are more worried about the green house effect ?

(A) Politicians

(B) Physicians

(C) Chemists

(D) Environmentalists

5. The word 'felling' as used in the passage means 

(A) planting

(B) burning

(C) caring

(D) cutting

Read the poem carefully and answer following questions.

Let others cheer the winning man,

There's one I hold worthwhile ;

It is he who does the best he can,

Then loses with a smile.

Beaten he is, but not to say,

Down with the rank and file;

That man will win some other day,

Who loses with a smile.

1.People often praise those who ______.

(A) win

(B) lose

(C) smile

(C) stay down

2. The poet says a person is worth the praise who _______.

(A) wins

(B) loses

(C) smiles

(D) does his best

3.The poet highlights a person's who ______.

(A) optimistic spirit

(B) pleasure of winning

(C) pain of losing

(D) praise by the people

4. If the beaten man loses with a smile, he will ______.

(A) rank high

(B) never win

(C) lose every time

(D) win some other day

5. 'I' in the first stanza refers to _______.

(A) the poet

(B) the losing man

(C) the winning man

(D) the smiling man

  

[ PHYSICS (PCM) ]

1.The young's double slit interference experiment the separation between the sites is halved and the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. The fringe width of new pattern in comparison with the original one is :

(A) unchanged 

(B) halved

(C) doubled

(D) quadrupled

2. A mass of 100 gram is made to move in a horizontal circle of radius i m with a speed of 1 m/s. The work done on the mass for an angular displacement of 60° is :

(A) 1 J

(B) π/6 J

(C) 0.05 J

(D) zero

3. A body, initially at rest, undergoes one dimensional motion with constant acceleration. The power delivered to the body at time t is proportional to :

(A) √t

(B) t

(C) t^3/2

(D) t²

4. If 'h' and 'd' denote respectively the attitude and depth from the surface of the earth, then the acceleration due to gravity

(A) increases with the decrease of both h and d

(B) decreases with the increase of h and decrease of d

(C) increases with the increase of h and decrease of d

(D) decreases with the decrease of both h and d

5. A rectangular boat of length 4 m and breadth 1.5 m floats on a lake of normal water. It sinks by 1.2 cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is :

(A) 48 kg

(B) 60 kg

(C) 72 kg

(D) 84 kg

6. With increase of pressure the velocity of sound in a gas 

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) increases or decreases depending on the nature of the gas

(D) does not vary

7. A force of 2.5 N is experienced by a point charge 5×10-6 C at a point in an electric field. The potential gradient at that point in S.I system is

(A) -5×10⁵ Nc^-1

(B) -5×10^-5 Nc^-1

(C)  5×10⁵ Vm^-1

(D)  5×10^-5 Vm^-1

8. The refractive index of the material of an equilateral glass prism is 1.414 for monochromatic yellow light, when the prism is placed in air. The angle of minimum deviation of a ray of this light when refracted through this prism is 

(A) 60°

()B 45°

(C) 39°

(D) 30°

9. Two thin and long parallel wires separated by a distances in vacuum carry current I ampere each. The magnitude of the force exerted by one wire on the other per unit length is :

(A) μ_oI/2πS

(B) μ_oI²/2πS

(C) μ_oI/2πS²

(D) μ_oI²/2πS²

10. An ideal transformer is used to step down the voltage of transmission from 13.2 kV to 220V. If the supply of the secondary current is 30 A, the primary current is :

(A) 30A

(B) 5A

(C) 2A

(D) 0.5A

11. The equivalent capacitance of two capacitors when joined in series is 3μF and when joined in parallel is 16μF. The capacities of the two capacitors are

(A) 8 μF each

(B) 4 μF and 12 μF

(C) 6 μF and 10 μF

(D) 2 μF and 14 μF

12. A 220 V, 100W bulb is connected to a source of 180V. The power consumed by the bulbs is nearly 

(A) 100W

(B) 82W

(C) 75W

(D) 67W

13. An a.c in ampere given by the equation i=0.3 sin 100t is maintened through an inductance 0.2 H. The inductive reactance of the circuit in ohm is

(A) 0.06

(B) 20

(C) 30

(D) 33.3

14. The image of an extended object formed by a lens is found to be virtual, erect and magnified and is formed at a distance f from the lens where f is the focal length of the lens. Then

(A) The object distance is f/2 from the lens which is concave 

(B) The object distance is f/2 from the lens which is convex

(C) The object distance is 3f/2 from the lens which is concave

(D) The object distance is 3f/2 from the lens which is convex

15. Two sound waves are represented by equations :

y₁ = a sin (24 πt - 0.033x)

y₂ = a sin (16 πt - 0.022x)

When the two waves meet the beats produced by them per second will be 

() 11

(B) 8

(C) 6

(D) 4

16. An ideal gas in a container is at absolute temperature T. The r.m.s speed of the gas molecules is proportional to :

(A) T²

(B) T^3/2

(C) T

(D) T^1/2

17. To masses of m₁=1g and m₂=9g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their respective linear momenta ie, p₁ : p₂ is

(A) 9 :1

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 1 : 3

(D) 1 : 9

18. A particle of mass m is going round a circle of radius R under the action of gravitational attraction of heavy mass M ate the centre of the circle. The speed of the particle is :

(A) R^-3/2 √GM

(B) R^-1/2 √GM

(C) R^1/2 √GM

(D) R^3/2 √GM

19. When an elastic material with young's modulus Y is subjected to a stretching stress S the energy stored per unit volume of the material is :

(A) S²/2Y

(B) S/2Y

(C) 2Y/S²

(D) 2S²Y

[ CHEMISTRY (PCM) ]

1. Which set of quantum numbers is not correct ?

                   n        l          m            s

(A)             2        1          0          +1/2

(B)             2         2         -1         +1/2

(C)             2         1        +1          -1/2

(D)            3          2          0           -1/2

2. In the modern periodic table, the four nearest diagonal neighbours of the element with atomic number 14 are :

(A) Al, Ge, Zn, N

(B) N, As, Ge, B

(C) C, O, Ge, Se

(D) P, Al, C, Ge

3. The ionic radii of O^-2, F^-, Na⁺,Mg²⁺, and Al³⁺ show :

(A) a significant decrease from O^2- to Al³⁺

(B) an increase from O^2- to F^- and then decrease from Na⁺ to Al³⁺

(C) a decrease from O^2- to F^- and then increase from Na⁺ to Al³⁺

(D) a significant increase from O^2- to Al³⁺

4. Considering the nature of overlap of atomic orbitals to form the molecule, which one of the following molecules is different from others ?

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Oxygen

(D) Fluorin

5. The correct order of the size of sp, sp² and sp³ hybrid orbitals of carbon atom is :

(A) sp > sp² > s

(B) sp > sp³ > ssp²

(C) sp< sp² < sp³

(D) sp³> sp >sp²

6. Which ore does not undergo self reduction ?

(A) HgS

(B) Ag²s

(C) Cu²s

(D) PbS

7. IUPAC name of glycerol is :

(A) 1, 2 - ethane diol

(B) 1, 2, 3 - propane triol

(C) 1, 1, 2 - trihydroxy propane

(D) 1, 2 - dyhydroxy ethane

8. The position of double bond in alkenes can be located by :

(A) hydrogenation

(B) ozonolysis

(C) photolysis

(D) hydration

9. (I) aniline

    

    (II) benzene

    (III) nitro - benzene

The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution of compounds is :

(A) II > III >I

(B) I < II > III

(C) I > II  > III

(D) III > II > I

10. Which one of the following pairs will have the same number of molecules ?

(A) 1g. of hydrogen and 44g. of carbon dioxide

(B) 2g. of hydrogen and 44.8 litres carbon dioxide at NTP

(C) 2g. of hydrogen and 2g. of carbon dioxide

(D) 1g. of hydrogen and 11.2 litres of carbon dioxide at NTP

11. Equal masses of zinc (atomic mass 65 ) and iodine (atomic mass 127 ) were allowed to react till completion of the reaction to form zinc iodide. Which substance is left unreacted and to what fraction of its original mass ?

(A) I ; 0.744

(B) Zn ; 0.744

(C) I ; 1.488

(D) Zn ; 1.488

12. for a given mass of gas, if its pressure is reduced to one half and the absolute temperature is doubled, then its volume will be :

( where v is the initial volume )

(A) V/4

(B) 2V

(C) 4V

(D) unaltered

13.(i) When a liquid is taken in a closed vessel, evaporation and condensation takes place simultaneously.

(ii) Rate of condensation decrease as the number of molecules in the vapour pressure increases.

(iii) When the rate of condensation and the rate of evaporation are equal, the pressure exerted by the vapours of the liquid is called vapour pressure

(A) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong

(B) Both (i) and (iii) are wrong

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

(D) Both (i) and (iii) are correct

14. If E₁, E₂, E₃ .......En represent the energy of 1^st, 2^nd, 3^rd ......n^th shell respectively, then

(A) E₂ - E₁ > E₃ - E₂ > ......> E_n - E_n-1

(B)  E₂ - E₁ < E₃ - E₂ < ......< E_n - E_n-1

(C)  E₂ - E₁ = E₃ - E₂ = ......= E_n - E_n-1

(D) None of the above is correct

15. The oxidation number of nitrogen in its compounds can lie between :

(A) -3 to +7

(B) +3 to +5

(C) 0 to +5

(D) -3 to +5

16. 25 ml of aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid containing 7.3 gms of acid per litre neutrallised 30 ml of aqueous solution of caustic soda. What is the normality of the alkali solution ?

(A) N/2

(B) N/4

(C) N/6

(D) N/8

17. The pH of 10^-8 M solution of HCl in water is :

(A) 8.0

(B) -8.0

(C) between 7 and 8

(D) between 6 and 7

18.The most abundant metal and non metal in earths crust are :

(A) iron and carbon

(B) iron and oxygen

(C) aluminium and oxygen

(D) copper and sulphur

[ MATHEMATICS ]

Math Question Paper solved(Part-1) : CLICK HERE

Math Question Paper solved(Part-2) : CLICK HERE

1. What is the mean deviation of 30, 40, 85, 75, 45 ?

(A) 10

(B) 20

(C) 30

(D) 40

2. Two cards are drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that both are spades ?

(A) 1/13

(B) 1/14

(C) 1/15

(D) 1/17

3. What is the perpendicular distance of the point (3, 2) from the line 5x - 12y + 35 + 0 ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

4.Which of the following statements is true in respect of the roots of the equation 4x² + 16x + 15 = 0 ?

(A) Both are positive

(B) Both are negative

(C) One is positive and other one is negative

(D) One is real and other one is not real

5. If a set A has 4 elements, then what is the number of elements in the power set of A ?

(A) 8

(B) 12

(C) 16

(D) 20

6. How many iron rods, each of length 7m and diameter 2cm can be made from 0.88 cubic meter of iron by melting and recasting ?

( π=22/7 )

(A) 100

(B) 200

(C) 300

(D) 400

7.The diameter of a circle is 21cm and the arc related to a sector of the circle is of degree measure 240° . What is the area in square cm of said sector ?

( π=22/7 )

(A) 321

(B) 312

(C) 231

(D) 213

8. What is the integral value of x if 

|x   x   1|

|0   2   1|  =  4

|3   1   4|

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

9.D, E and F are respectively the mid points of BC, CA and AB of △ ABC. Y co-ordinate of the point which divides AD in the ratio 2 : 1 is 6. X co-ordinate of the point which divides BE in the ratio 2 : 1 is -9. What are the co-ordinates of the point which divides CF in the ratio 2:1 ?

(A) (-9, 6)

(B) (-3, 2)

(C) (2, -3)

(D) (9,-6)

10. What is the diameter of the sphere

x²+y²+z²-16x+12y-2√dz+d = 0 ?

(A) 5

(B) 10

(C) 20

(D) 40

11. What is the sum of all natural numbers lying between 100 and 1000 which are multiples of 5 ?

(A) 98450

(B) 94850

(C) 98540

(D) 95840

12. If Pth, qth and rth terms of a G>P are x, y, z respectively, then what is x^q-r y^r-p z^p-q ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

13. If x+y=4, xy=1, then what is the value of tan^-1x+tan^-1y ?

(A) π/6

(B) 3π/4

(C) π/4

(D) π/2

14. If sin(x+y)/sin(x-y) = a+b/a-b, then what is tanx/tany ?

(A) b/a

(B) a/b

(C) a+b

(D) ab

15.lim x->0 sin5x/x ?

(A) 0  

(B) ∞

(C) 1/5

(D) 5 

16. If y = cos³x, then what is the derivative of y with respect to x ?

(A) 3 cos²x sinx

(B) 3 cosx sin²x

(C) -3 cos² sinx

(D) -3 cosx sinx

17.If G be a group and a, b ∈ G then what is (ab)-1 ?

(A) 1/ab

(B) 1/a^-1b^-1

(C) a^-1b^-1

(D) b^-1a^-1

18. If f : R->R, g : R -> [-1,1] and f(x) = x², g(x) = sinx, then what is the function g[ f(x) ] ?

(A) sinx²

(B) sin²x

(C) x sinx

(D) x²sinx

19. what is the range of the function y = √9-x² ?

Ans : { y : y ∈ R and O < y < 3 }

20. what will be the result obtained on rationalising the denominator of √2-1/√2+1 ?

Ans : 3-2√2

[ CHILD DEVELOPMENT, PEDAGOGY, 

SCHOOL MANAGEMENT AND EVALUATION ]

1. In which of the following the mental operation is the least ?

(A) Imitation 

(B) Imagination

(C) Inquiry

(D) Intuition

2.What is the best way to handle with the undesirable emotions of the adolescents ?

(A) Punishing the adolescents

(B) Advising them not to behave in that way

(C) Process of sublimation

(D) Bringing it to the notice of the parents

3. Who propounded the group factory theory of intelligence ?

(A) Guilford

(B) Terman

(C) Spearman

(D) Thurstone

4. Language development of the child is not associated with :

(A) Cognitive domain

(B) Conative domain

(C) Affective domain

(D) Intellectual domain

5. The doing aspect of behaviour is associated with :

(A) Cognitive domain

(B) Intellectual domain

(C) Affective domain

(D) Conative domain


6. A creative learner one who is good at :

(A) Mathematics

(B) Literature

(C) Central thinking

(D) Lateral thinking

7. Which of the following affects the development of self concept of the adolescents ?

(A) Success

(B) Failure

(C) Acceptance

(D) Achievement

8. According to Guilford any intellectual activity of the human being can be described in terms of three component such as :

(A) Operation, content, product

(B) Operation, content, analysis

(C) Operation, product, analysis

(D) Content, product, analysis

9. Who propounded the ' two factor theory' of intelligence ?

(A) Spearman

(B) Guilford

(C) Thurstone

(D) Watson

10. The self concept means :

(A) What one judges of his achievement

(B) What one think of himself

(C) What one discriminates between right and wrong

(D) What ones learns during teaching

11. Which of the following can not be considered as a characteristics of learning ?

(A) It takes place only in formal institutions

(B) It is goal directed

(C) It is a comprehensive process

(D) It is the result of practice and experience

12. A candidate is working hard to qualify the OSSTET. The candidate is said to have been motivated :

(A) intrinsically

(B) Extrinsically

(C) Individually

(D) Experientially

13. When previous learning makes no difference at all to the performance of the learner, it is called :

(A) Zero transfer of learning

(B) Absolute transfer of learning

(C) Positive transfer of learning

(D) Negative transfer of learning

14. Which of the following pair is not correct ?

(A) Watson        --  Operant conditioning

(B) Kohler .       --   insight theory

(C) Thorndike   -- Trial and error theory

(D) Pavlov        -- Classical conditioning

15. The critical pedagogy aims at :

(A) to rationalize the banking system of education

(B) to do away with the banking system of education

(C) to strengthen the banking system of education

(D) to monitor the banking system of education

16. Repetition strengthens the connection between S & R. What law of learning is its based upon ?

(A) Readiness

(B) Practice

(C) Effect

(D) Use

17. Who is more active in critical pedagogy ?

(A) Teacher

(B) Learner

(C) Educational planner

(D) Parents

18. Who is a critical pedagogic educator ?

(A) Martin Luther King

(B) Thomas Jefferson

(C) Dalton

(D) Ira Shor

19. The uses of TLM is not associated with :

(A) to make teaching-learning pleasurable

(B) to cover the course content in time

(C) to create motivation for learning

(D) to teach concrete concepts

20. A learner with special needs is :

(A) different form others in cognitive behaviour

(B) different form others in affective behaviour

(C) different form others in teaching-learning behaviour

(D) All of those

21. Which of the following is not a component of  educational management ?

(A) Educational guidance

(B) Educational planning

(C) Educational administration

(D) Educational supervision

22. The school administration should be :

(A) Democratic

(B) Bureaucratic

(C) Autocratic

(D) Idealistic

23. Which is not a factor of democratic management ?

(A) Co-operation

(B) Co-ordination

(C) Integration

(D) Imposition

24. Which one is not associated with the role of a teacher ?

(A)facilitator

(B) philosopher

(C) friend

(D) administrator

25.Which one is considered as the core of schooling for holistic development ?

(A) curriculum

(B) syllabi

(C) Courses of studies

(D)Text-books

26. Difficulty value and discriminating power of the test items are determined at the stage of :

(A) Planning

(B) Preparation

(C) Try out

(D) Administration

27.Continuous and comprehensive evaluation mainly aims at :

(A) Holistic development

(B) Scholastic development

(C) Cognitive development

(D) Conative development

28. What type of grading system has been introduced by the B.S.E, Odisha for HSC Examination ?

(A) Absolute

(B) Relative

(C) Direct

(D) Indirect

29. What is not there in a Blue-print ?

(A) Relative weightage to the content

(B) Relative weightage to the difficulty level

(C) Relative weightage to the type of questions

(D) Relative weightage to the instructional objects

30. What type of evaluation is the OSSTET ?

(A) Formative

(B) Summative

(C) Placement

(D) Diagnostic

31. At what stage of development a child usually appears at the H.S.C examination ?

(A) Childhood

(B) Late childhood

(C) Adolescence

(D) Adulthood

32. Four distinct stages of child's intellectual development identified by :

(A) Guilford

(B) Piaget

(C) Skinner

(D) Kohlberg

33. Which of the following indicates the development of a child ?

(A) Increase in height

(B) Increase in weight

(C) Increase in size of limbs

(D) Increase in function of limbs

34. At what stage of development the child is egocentric ?

(A) Sensory motor

(B) Pre-operational

(C) Concrete operational

(D) Formal operational

35. Which of the following is a negative emotion ?

(A) Jealousy

(B) Curiosity

(C) Pleasure

(D) Affection

36. Which statement is not correct ?

(A) Development is both quantitative and qualitative

(B) Development takes place at a uniform rate

(C) Development is a continuous process

(D) Development proceeds from general to specific

37. Which of the following is the best for growth of infants ?

(A) Normal diet

(B) Milk diet

(C) Food juice

(D) Milk and other nutritive diet

38. Development starts from the stage of :

(A) Pre-natal

(B) Post natal

(C) Infancy

(D) Early childhood

39.What is the first social group with which a child in contact with ?

(A) Family

(B) Neighourhood

(C) School

(D) Community

40. Which one is not a social need of the adolescents ?

(A) Status

(B) Independance

(C) Achievement

(D) Affection

41. Pedagogy is the science of :

(A) Teaching

(B) Learning

(C) Planning

(D) Testing

42. Who propounded the instrumental conditioning theory of learning ?

(A) Pavlov

(B) Skinner

(C) Erikson

(D) Kohlberg

43. According to humanistic approach to learning, the human needs are arranged in a hierarchial order. What need is placed at the top ?

(A) Self esteem

(B) Self status

(C) Self safety

(D) Self actualization

44. The experimental learning propounded by roger refers to :

(A) Content centred

(B) Teacher centred

(C) Learner centred

(D) Programme centred

45.'When any conduction unit is ready to conduct ,for it to do so is satisfying' - This statement refers to which law of learning ?

(A) Readiness

(B) Effect

(C) Use

(D) Disuse

46. Which of the following is not teacher-centred learning ?

(A) Learning by doing

(B) Explaining

(C) Discussing

(D) Demonstrating

47. What is the function of motivation in teaching learning process ?

(A) It identifies the objectives of learning

(B) It identifies the methods of teaching

(C) It re-inforces the learner's behaviour

(D) It identifies the learner's weakness

48. The inductive approach to formation of concepts according to Bruner comprises four steps such as :

(I) Analysis

(II) Presentation of examples

(III) Testing

(IV) Generalization

What is the correct order of the steps ?

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, I, IV, III

(C) II, I, II, IV

(D) III, I, II, IV

49. Constructivism as a theory of learning focuses on :

(A) the role of the learner in imitation

(B) the role of the learner in memorisation

(C) the role of the learner in imagination

(D) the role of the learner in creating new knowledge out of own experience

50, Social constructivism according to Vygotsky is :

(A) acquiring new knowledge basing on the learner's experience and co-operation with others

(B) acquiring new knowledge during class-room transaction

(C) acquiring new knowledge basing on the learner's previous knowledge

(D) acquiring new knowledge reading supplementary books

[ M.I.L - ODIA ] 

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